Difference between revisions of "Limits and L'Hospital's Rule"

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#L'Hospital's Rule 1 <math display=inline>\lim_{x\to 0} {f(x) \over g(x)} = lim_{x\to 0} {f'(x) \over g'(x)} </math>
#L'Hospital's Rule 1 <math display=inline>\lim_{x\to 0} {f(x) \over g(x)} = lim_{x\to 0} {f'(x) \over g'(x)} </math>
#L'Hospital's Rule 2 <math display=inline>\lim_{x\to \infty } {f(x) \over g(x)} = lim_{x\to \infty} {f'(x) \over g'(x)} </math>
#L'Hospital's Rule 2 <math display=inline>\lim_{x\to \infty } {f(x) \over g(x)} = lim_{x\to \infty} {f'(x) \over g'(x)} </math>
 
<noinclude>
there are some of the problems that can't use the L'Hospital's Rule such as:
there are some of the problems that can't use the L'Hospital's Rule such as:


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And then so on and forth so that means the limit does not exist.
And then so on and forth so that means the limit does not exist.


So if you wan't to compute this first limit we can't use L'Hospital's Rule and this is how we do it.
So if you want to compute this first limit we can't use L'Hospital's Rule and this is how we do it.


Start <math display=inline> \lim_{x \to \infty } {x + cos x \over x}</math>
Start <math display=inline> \lim_{x \to \infty } {x + cos x \over x}</math>
#<math display=inline> \lim_{x \to \infty } {1 {cos \over x}}</math
#<math display=inline> \lim_{x \to \infty } ({1 + {cos \over x}}) </math>
And then we will get the answer 1. because cos x only can be between 1 to -1 but it has been divided by Infinite so we can say it is almost zero and then + 1 so we will get 1.
</noinclude>

Latest revision as of 06:23, 17 September 2021

  1. L'Hospital's Rule 1
  2. L'Hospital's Rule 2

there are some of the problems that can't use the L'Hospital's Rule such as:

If you are only using the L'Hospital's Rule this is what you will get:

Start

  1. Derivatives
  2. Derivatives
  3. Derivatives

And then so on and forth so that means the limit does not exist.

So if you want to compute this first limit we can't use L'Hospital's Rule and this is how we do it.

Start

And then we will get the answer 1. because cos x only can be between 1 to -1 but it has been divided by Infinite so we can say it is almost zero and then + 1 so we will get 1.